24Now Thomas (called Didymus), one of the Twelve, was not with the disciples when Jesus came. 25So the other disciples told him, “We have seen the Lord!”
But he said to them, “Unless I see the nail marks in his hands and put my finger where the nails were, and put my hand into his side, I will not believe it.”
26A week later his disciples were in the house again, and Thomas was with them. Though the doors were locked, Jesus came and stood among them and said, “Peace be with you!” 27Then he said to Thomas, “Put your finger here; see my hands. Reach out your hand and put it into my side. Stop doubting and believe.”
28Thomas said to him, “My Lord and my God!”
29Then Jesus told him, “Because you have seen me, you have believed; blessed are those who have not seen and yet have believed.”
30Jesus did many other miraculous signs in the presence of his disciples, which are not recorded in this book. 31But these are written that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God, and that by believing you may have life in his name.
(John 20:24-31)
This week we are going to look at the question “Is Jesus Christ God?” In this passage doubting Thomas finally believes that the Lord rose from the dead and exclaims that he is God. Was he justified in this? Is there any other scriptural evidence that Jesus is God? Is this claim consistent with the salvation message? Join us this week for an exploration of this eternally important question.
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July 5, 2007 at 8:16 am |
Regarding John 20:28, the question is raised concerning Thomas’ double usage of the definite article, most literally translated: “the lord of me and the god [THEOS] of me.” Did Thomas use the definite article twice to speak of two persons, first the son to whom he was directly speaking as “the lord of me” and then did he turn his attention to the Heavenly Father in heaven in saying “the God of me”? I don’t know. If Thomas meant his whole expression to refer to only one person, only one definite article would have been needed: “the Lord and God of me”.
But if Thomas was referring to Jesus when he said “the THEOS of me”, was he thinking that Jesus wasYahweh, the only Most High of the universe, standing there before him? If Thomas did indeed refer to Jesus as “the THEOS of me”, we find no such custom all through the New Testament of referring to Jesus as “my God”, nor “our God”. The Bible writers continuously distinguish the Heavenly Father as “God”, and Jesus as the Son of the God, the one made Lord and Christ by God. If such a doctrine as “Jesus is Yahweh” is so all-important as many today seem to assume, we should expect such to be clearly stated many times throughout the New Testament, but actually what we find is just the opposite. So if Thomas refers to Jesus as his God in John 20:28, we have an exception to the general rule, and should seek to determine in what sense Thomas might have thought of Jesus as his God in harmony with the general distinction that is made throughout the rest of the New Testament. Thus, in harmony with the Hebraic tradition of applying the same words that are translated as “God” to others as rulers, princes, mighty ones, etc., Thomas, if he was applying the term THEOS, to Jesus, would have thought of Jesus as his mighty ruler, his mighty prince, not in the sense of the only Most High, Yahweh.
In service of Jesus and his God,
Ronald
http://godandson.reslight.net
July 5, 2007 at 8:21 am |
So what you’re saying is if Thomas called Jesus God he didn’t really mean it? That doesn’t make any sense. The same word for God (Theos) is used of Jesus here, there is no difference. And if it’s not true it would be blasphemy.
August 6, 2007 at 2:03 pm |
Ronald,
You said:
In point of fact, this is not what we would expect when reading the Bible. The problem here is that you’re applying a modern Western mindset to ancient documents from the Eastern Mediteranian. The writers of the Bible lived in a high context culture and held a shared set of assumptions and presuppositions. This is why we see things such as the deity and preexistence of Christ asserted and never defended throughout Paul’s epistles (the earliest witnesses) and the Gospels. These things that were taken for granted don’t need to be “clearly stated many times” because they were already a part of the fabric of earliest Christianity. I’d recommend Larry Hurtado’s Lord Jesus Christ: Devotion to Jesus in Earliest Christianity as well as Gordon D. Fee’s Pauline Christology: An Exegetical-Theological Study to see these points fleshed out.
And as far as Jesus being identified as Yahweh is concerned I’d direct you to the various OT scriptures applied to Jesus that were originally spoken of Yahweh (e.g. Joel 2:32 cf. Rom. 10:13).
September 3, 2008 at 11:54 pm |
Actually this is a very simple passage – but not for the Western mind. The Western mind automatically assumes that any use of the term God automatically means the receiver is the Creator (Jehovah) Himself. This is incorrect. The term God or god is a title of dignity and honor – men are called God in the Scriptures (you can do your own Bible study to confirm) and frequently outside of scriptures. Thomas was simply using a term of high honor to recognize the position that Jesus held in Thomas’s mind and heart – it is NOT to be understood as an ontologically relevant statement (there is no basis in the context nor in the term itself to assume this).
The fact is that Jesus HAS A GOD – Jn 20:17 only a few verses before establishes that whoever Jesus is HE IS NOT GOD THE CREATOR. Of course there are probably two hundred verses that plainly state this throughout the NT but these have been ignored in order for tradition to darken men’s minds. The choice is yours – you can believe in our One God – the Father (ICor 8:6) and the MAN Christ Jesus (now glorified sitting at the right hand of God) (ITim 2:5) or you can continue in your tradition.
Best,
Greg
January 2, 2009 at 1:24 am |
The Jews wanted to kill Jesus because “he, a man, claimed to be God” or made himself equal to God. If his enemies understood who he claimed to be, why can’t we?
February 1, 2009 at 10:57 pm |
I AM A CHRISTAIN AND SO ARE YOU. JESUS IS COMING AND I CANNOT WAIT AS YOU ALSO I AM SURE. I NEVER FELL IN LOVE WITH JESUS UNTIL I FOUND OUT IN HIS WORD THAT JESUS WAS GOD IN A FLESH BODY, JUST LIKE OURS. HOW GOD LOVES US!!!!!! IT IS A SIMPLE MESSAGE REALLY. THE WHOLE BIBLE TEACHES US TO TRUST GOD AND NEVER BELIEVE A HUMAN WITHOUT CHECKING OUT WHAT SAYETH THE LORD. AMEN
July 3, 2009 at 11:39 am |
It saddens me to read this, but it is to be expected. This heresy has been around since before 325AD, it’s called arianism and is named after Arius. The only reason it’s stil around is because we continue to stray from the one true teaching of the Apostles, which was never ment to be “Sola scriptura”. But as it stands our pride continues to get the best of us and we tend to think that we know better than 2000 years of tradition. But in case you don’t want to accept the teaching handed down by the Apostles through Christ’s Church for the last 2000 years, here’s one of the many examples in the bible pointing at Christ’s divinity:
John Cahpter 14
7″(I)If you had known Me, you would have known My Father also; from now on you (J)know Him, and have (K)seen Him.”
8(L)Philip said to Him, “Lord, show us the Father, and it is enough for us.”
9Jesus said to him, “Have I been so long with you, and yet you have not come to know Me, Philip? (M)He who has seen Me has seen the Father; how can you say, ‘Show us the Father’?
But I’m sure you’ll tell me what he really meant to say.
July 23, 2009 at 1:33 pm |
“I testify unto every man that heareth the words of the prophecy of this book, if any man shall add unto them, God shall add unto him the plagues which are written in this book: and if any man shall take away from the words of the book of this prophecy, God shall take away his part from the tree of life, and out of the holy city, which are written in this book.”
You’re adding onto it and saying that he did not mean actually God as the one and only God but just the son of God.
Jesus said “Before Abraham was I AM” What did he mean? Jesus commanded demons to flea from people with his own words. Jesus commanded angels. Jesus had the authority over heaven and earth.
“And behold, Jesus met them and greeted them. And they came up and took hold of His feet and worshiped Him. 10 Then Jesus said to them, “Do not be afraid; go and take word to My brethren to leave for Galilee, and there they will see Me.”
Wait they worshiped him? But it says that you are not supposed to worship any other god but the one and only God. So why didn’t Jesus contest and say “No don’t worship me!” Because Jesus is God, the one and only.
October 24, 2009 at 10:37 am |
If Jesus is not GOD the creator what does the following verses mean?
John 1-3 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. 2The same was in the beginning with God. 3All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made.
October 24, 2009 at 10:39 am |
Made a mistake, the verse should say? John 1: 1 – 3
November 26, 2009 at 9:58 pm |
One man’s sin bought Gods wrath in the world when adam disobeyed God, but another man’s death on the cross bought salvation for all mankind. The consequences of our sins or the curse was borne by him & with it was nailed on the cross. I believe in the Lord who is holy, without blemish,the last sacrificial lamb which was slaughtered so that man could again live in the garden of eden under God’s grace. You have been healed by his wounds. Noone can save u except God that means he is God the second person in the holy trinity